this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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Asklemmy
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Isnt this a stupid example though, because obviously if you remove all penguins from the zoo, you're not going to see any penguins
Its not stupid. To disprove a claim that states "All X have Y" then you only need ONE example. So, as pick a really obvious example.
it's not a good example because you've only changed the symbolic representation and not the numerical value. the op's question is identical when you convert to binary. thir is not a counterexample and does not prove anything.
They didn't convert anything to anything, and the 1.010010001... number isn't binary
then it's not relevant to the question as it is not pi.
The question is
Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean...
Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn't.
If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.
To answer the real question "Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?"
The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily