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EU was ready to take away Hungarys veto rights if it had not conceded on issue of Ukraine accession talks (www.pravda.com.ua)

submitted 11 months ago by CAVOK@lemmy.world to c/europe@feddit.de

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[–] misk@sopuli.xyz 6 points 11 months ago (1 children)

The source they're citing is a single person that's not likely to be impartial.

[–] letmesleep@feddit.de 12 points 11 months ago (2 children)

That doesn't change that the option is on the table and has been for years. It's it the EU's de-facto constitution:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_7_of_the_Treaty_on_European_Union

[–] misk@sopuli.xyz 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

I do know about it. I don't believe nobody would have covered for Orban.

[–] letmesleep@feddit.de 5 points 11 months ago

I guess that depends on what the other leaders said. Even outside EU rules states can exert quite a bit of pressure on other states hence I don't believe that a small country like Slovakia, despite it's Russian-friendly government, would dare to become the target of the ire of the countries making up 97% of the EU's population and 98% of its GDP.

[–] Vincent@kbin.social 1 points 11 months ago

Identifying the breach requires unanimity (excluding the state concerned), but sanctions require only a qualified majority.

Wait, how does this work? Can sanctions be instated without identifying a country as being in breach? Or is unanimity first required, and only after that, the majority can decide what the sanction is?