this post was submitted on 19 Jan 2024
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The simplest answer is that the landowner could expect a higher ROI from issuing a land contract or private mortgage than from selling outright. If they do decide to sell, it's going to be to an owner-occupant, or another investor willing to "partner" with a tenant/buyer to secure that owner-occupant credit. The Non-occupant "penalty" should be high enough to kill the traditional landlord's ROI.
I don't think I am taking away the deposit. Where are you getting that?
The landowner is "gambling" just as much with a land contract as they would be with a traditional rental.
The private mortgagee can insist on a 20% down payment from the mortgager, just like a conventional mortgagee.
20-year-old me had no capital, remember? The shabby apartment I lived in back in the 90's was worth less than $100k, but 20% of whatever that number was would still have been well beyond my means.
A land contract does not typically require a down payment. It usually just requires monthly payments. If there is an initial deposit, it's more comparable to a security deposit than a down payment.
If 20-year-old you had sufficient capital to rent, you had sufficient capital to enter into a land contract.