this post was submitted on 10 Mar 2024
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One of the comments reads : Actually, we will probably never figure out, was it man or woman. but I thought this comment of the professor was an interesting eye opener. https://mastodonapp.uk/@MarkHoltom/112070436760917344

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[–] survivalmachine@beehaw.org -1 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (4 children)

Sure, you can say "man" means "mankind", but when you use gendered language like that, most people picture a couple of caveMEN sitting around a fire carving bones rather than caveHUMANS (edited -- I think it would benefit us to picture all genders around this hypothetical fire). Even though we try to use gendered language in a neutral way, listeners will often perceive the language in a gendered way.

[–] Drusas@kbin.social 18 points 8 months ago (2 children)

"Man" also means "humankind". In fact, it was originally a gender-neutral word.

https://www.etymonline.com/word/man

[–] survivalmachine@beehaw.org 5 points 8 months ago

Yes, I know. I explained that. That doesn't change perception.

[–] jackpot@lemmy.ml 4 points 8 months ago

this is it tjank you

[–] usualsuspect191@lemmy.ca 5 points 8 months ago (1 children)
[–] bane_killgrind@lemmy.ml 2 points 8 months ago (1 children)
[–] survivalmachine@beehaw.org 0 points 8 months ago (1 children)
[–] Juno@beehaw.org -1 points 8 months ago

Just FYI the origin of "woman" is "wife-man" which (forgive if I do these slightly out of order) was "wyfe-man" to "wife-man" to "wieman" to woman 👩

The misogyny is built into the language. Or the common word used originates from "wife of man"

Paraphrased source Websters word origins

[–] BCsven@lemmy.ca 1 points 8 months ago

Do they, or is it just men that think that? While women might think of their own gender around a fire, and assume either gender/ non-gendered