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submitted 6 months ago by catch22@programming.dev to c/languages@lemmy.world

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[–] panbroggi@feddit.it 6 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Very nice! Fun fact: half of these homonyms work in neo-Latin languages, too.

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 3 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Umm... these aren't homonyms in English 🙂.

They are heteronyms, which means same spelling but pronounced differently.

[–] massive_bereavement@kbin.social 2 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

~~In some cases also can classify as homophones.~~

Nope, it's bull, homophones and heteronyms go to different bars.

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Then they wouldn't be heteronyms.

If by "cases" you mean accent, then that's certainly a possibility.

[–] massive_bereavement@kbin.social 2 points 6 months ago

I Misunderstood what heteronyms where supposed to be.

Yep, pretty much opposite of what homophones are.

[–] panbroggi@feddit.it 2 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Well some of them are, like Polish and polish. I agree that different pronounciation is pretty exclusive, though.

[–] lars@lemmy.sdf.org 3 points 6 months ago

I’m pretty sure they’re all heteronyms in spoken English and make sense only if you use two pronunciations of the duplicated word.

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 1 points 6 months ago

In my accent Polish/polish are pronounced differently. In what accent are they the same?