ban forced marriages, female genital mutilation
Why only female? Why the double standard?
this post was submitted on 16 Nov 2023
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Because the case of forced female marriage is much more of an issue than that for males? It is much more efficient to spend energy fighting a widespread injustice than a very uncommon one that may be more situational than traditional
I think they're talking about the genial mutilation part, not the marriage part
ah yeah, makes sense
In France, rape is defined as a sexual act committed under threat, duress, surprise or violence.
Well... yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?
Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:
Rape occurs when an act of sexual penetration or an oral-genital act is committed on a person, with violence, coercion, threat or surprise, that is without his consent.
I'm pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of "rape" is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent
Edit2: source