this post was submitted on 30 Sep 2024
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Reading's going fine, but I'm just going to talk about a tangential subject on interest, that I should dealt with understanding, chapters ago
spoiler
I'm just trying sense of the principal sum, or 100%, when financial capitalists initially loan to industrial onesWhen the loan is used by the industrial capitalist to buy his constant capital, and used to help produce commodities, along with the labor he bought of his own personal fund,
say the constant capital (holder of old variable labor) and labor (surplus value + variable capital) = 140% of the original
Now, when bankers returns to ask for their principle plus interest, let's say 5%,
140% = commodity value =
100% constant capital, the part needed to be paid to the lender
20% variable capital
15% surplus, due to 5% interest
5% interest, to be paid to the lender
And although their principal and interest is to be paid, the industrial capitalist apparently still owns capital of 120, that can be exchanged for cash and reinvested again, and actually has an increase in net capital by 15?
Am I understanding this right, just to clarify? Or am I wrong? I'm confused...
That's where I get confused
Doesn't the constant capital depreciate as it transfers its value to the commodities? And the commodities value of 140 would split up accordingly as above
*In this case, wouldn't *the industrial capitalist just be exchanging 120 (100 for constant, and 20 for variable) for 15 in value?
How would the factory capitalist preserve this 120 capital value, along with the new capital made?
I think Doubledee explained it well but I'll add my own thoughts to. If I understand your example right.
Vol 3 Chapter 23
I cite that because as you said, 5% of that goes back to the lender and over time that will repay the original money capitalist. Or that portion for the money capitalist. It just a manner of proportions in regards to that surplus value or profit to who gets what of that total surplus value produced.
The industrial capitalist preserve his 120 capital like he would if the money capitalist never came along. Since Marx mentions in a few others chapters, one of the goals of labor power is not to just produce surplus value, but also to recreate/preserve the already existing value. So that 120 capital is recreated back into the new commodities made along with surplus value. And that is still the same even when the money capitalist comes along. And when the money capitalist does come along, it just a matter of proportion for the profits or the total surplus value that was produced, they each get. Nothing to do with the preservation of the already existing capital value. And the constant capital does depreciate.
To cite something way back from Vol 1, chapter 8