this post was submitted on 16 Jul 2025
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it was always part of Mathew.
The fun fact is that Mathew insists this is to fulfill a prophecy in Isaiah. (Mat 1:32, referencing Isaiah 7:14)
Mathew's verses
The verses in Isaiah Mathew is citing
-Emphasis mine.
The Isaiah prophecy is being given to Ahaz as a sign that his enemies will get rekt. The child being mentioned, here, is nothing more than a time-marker. Basically, what it's saying is, that somewhere a young woman will give birth and name the kid Immanuel. By the time that kid has reached the age of majority or whatever, then everything else (enemies being rekt.) will have happened.
There's a few mistakes the author of Mathew is making here. First. The prophecy was given to Ahaz and could not have possibly been about some kid seven centuries later.
Secondly, in the original Hebrew, the word is most certainly "young woman" or "maiden" not "virgin." so the prophecy isn't even saying there'll be a virgin giving birth. Just a woman, and the sole role the kid plays is to identify a period of time. at that time and place, it would have been around fourteen.
The second mistake comes from the author using the Septuagint instead of the original Hebrew texts. for whatever reason the Greeks translated 'maiden' to 'virgin', and quite incorrectly so. Most modern English translations (particularly for Christians,) make the same mistake because it would be awkward otherwise. Suffice it to say that the author of mathew has exactly zero understanding of the old texts- probably because he was a Hellenic Jew, and spoke/read Greek- not Hebrew or Aramaic.
basically all of the messianic prophecies mathew points to beign fullfilled were either not a prophecy originally, or so severly misunderstood that it's incomprehensible to imagine the author did anything other than throw spaghettified shit at the wall to see what stuck.