this post was submitted on 12 Feb 2024
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So I just discovered that I have been working next to the waste of oxygen that raped my best friend several years ago. I work in a manufacturing environment and I know that you can't fire someone just for being a sex offender unless it directly interferes with work duties (in the US). But despite it being a primarily male workforce he does work with several women who have no idea what he is. He literally followed a woman home, broke into her house, and raped her. Him working here puts every female employee at risk. How is that not an unsafe working environment? How is it at even legal to employ him anywhere where he will have contact with women?

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[–] fuckwit_mcbumcrumble@lemmy.world 49 points 8 months ago (2 children)

What someone did in the past doesn't mean they're going to do it again. You may be paranoid about it, but imagine how they feel if they're a legitimately changed person? That said I'd still be cautious.

I agree with @captainlezbian Was he convicted, or found innocent? Unless he's doing weird shit that doesn't justify continued discrimination.

[–] Catoblepas@lemmy.blahaj.zone 14 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (2 children)

Important to note: in the US people are not found “innocent,” they are found “not guilty.” It may seem pedantic but it’s important to remember that a lack of a conviction is not evidence that they didn’t commit a crime, only that a jury believed there was enough doubt in the evidence to decline to find them guilty.

This is especially relevant to rape cases, where evidence is difficult for outsiders to interpret and a trial result of “not guilty” doesn’t necessarily mean a rape didn’t happen or that the defendant didn’t commit it.

[–] Morcyphr@lemmy.one 24 points 8 months ago (2 children)

Similarly, "not guilty" does not necessarily mean "guilty, but we couldn't prove 100%". So, a lack of conviction is not evidence that they did commit a crime, as you're implying. This is especially relevant to rape cases.

[–] ParsnipWitch@feddit.de 1 points 8 months ago

Why is this "especially relevant to rape cases"?

[–] snooggums@kbin.social 12 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (1 children)

If they didn't do it they get the same 'not guilty' verdict, so what is the recourse for someone who was falsely charged?

I am specifically thinking of the US where there are a lot of black men falsely convicted of violent crimes they did not commit because of racist eye witness testimony or even victims who blame a random black person to avoid social stigma and prosecutors who want higher conviction rates.

[–] Catoblepas@lemmy.blahaj.zone 4 points 8 months ago

A false accusation or conviction isn’t even necessarily because of ill intent from anyone involved (although let’s be real, cops almost always have ill intent); people can just be wrong about who raped them. Eye witness testimony is bad in a neutral setting and horrible in an emotionally charged setting, and if for some reason DNA evidence is unavailable then unfortunately victims are left with nothing but their (human, fallible) eyewitness testimony of what happened.

Intentional false accusation is a whole other ball game, and is already a crime.