this post was submitted on 24 Jul 2024
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after the first bourgeois revolution in France, the concert of europe imposed a replacement of the ancien regime on France again. the subsequent 2 successful revolutions were simply getting back to the bourgeois government from the first one. the Empires were bourgeois, but they curtailed the bourgeois democracy processes for a more direct rule in crisis (first empire, for the exigency of the military conflict--2nd empire to put down socialists)
a state like the US cannot have a 'revolution' to shift which class is at the helm except the proletariat replacing the bourgeoisie---but they can certainly have fractious and bloody conflict within factions of the bourgeoisie. this could definitely lead to modifications to the government & state, any insurgent faction will want to remove the practically ancient political inefficiencies of the US government, but even if the US had a civil war with a winning side coming out with a more rationally organized bourgeois democracy, it wouldn't really be a revolution so long as bourgeois replaced bourgeois
Ahhh gotcha, thank you
the US is particularly calcified and host to one of the oldest bourgeois governments in the world, the initial revolution was not the prototypical type from europe, it was more defined by its status as a settler colony (to a semi-feudal nation) than a society that had a nobility to be usurped. pretty easy to get the notion that the US still 'needs' to go through the liberal stage properly. read "Uncommon Dominion" by Sally Mckee to receive a more complete definition and distinction of settler independence revolts from classic revolution, i also hear "The Counterrevolution of 1776" by Gerald Horne dwells on these questions particularly to the US but i've not read it