this post was submitted on 07 May 2024
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34
Why does China and USSR use GNP/GNI/ВНП instead of GDP as a measure of wealth? (hexbear.net)
submitted 8 months ago by What_Religion_R_They@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net
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I hear it used a lot in old USSR programs, in texts by Chinese marxists and even in old citations of Deng Xiaoping. Specifically per capita. What makes this the metric they reach for, instead of GDP, which is more famous.

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[–] FuckyWucky@hexbear.net 16 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (2 children)

https://su90-ru.translate.goog/gdp.html?_x_tr_sl=ru&_x_tr_tl=en&_x_tr_hl=en-US&_x_tr_pto=wapp

edit: fun fact: in countries like Ireland difference between GNP/GNI and GDP is much more, and even GNI isn't sufficient because regular GNI includes income of foreign corps domiciled in Ireland for tax evasion, so they modified it to exclude that.

[–] What_Religion_R_They@hexbear.net 23 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago)

For the USSR, the difference between GNP and GDP compared to GDP was insignificant. The USSR built enterprises in many countries, but these were mainly enterprises from these countries. One of the exceptions is Vietsovpetro.

The world didn't deserve them 🥹

Thank you for sharing

[–] Dolores@hexbear.net 11 points 8 months ago

you ever hear that joke about two economists that see a pile of dog shit on the side of the road?

back in Deng's time it was fairly common to use GNP in the west too even, GDP was traded in because it makes financialized shit look bigger