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Anyone know why the article says on a scale unseen since the First World War? I would have assumed since the second world war given the scale of that conflict. Did WW1 have more amputees than ww2?
Antibiotics are not available during WW1 so I imagine it led to more infected wounds that requires amputations.
I do not understand how they could publish something like this...
why not?
https://encyclopedia.ushmm.org/content/en/article/the-murder-of-people-with-disabilities cause it's a blatantly untrue statement that is also just comparing suffering of people for no actual reason and doesn't justify it's own take on why what it's said is actually true.
What exactly is the statement you are talking about? The title? I read it as "there haven't been this many amputees in a country since ww1 and this is what they are going through"
Even this is hard to believe given many other wars happened in between. E.g., the genocide in Rwanda (https://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0007720)
Good point, but here's what the article says "Europe has experienced nothing like it since World War I, and the United States not since the Civil War."
So the title is misleading clickbait that is posted for engagement and misinformation/propaganda?
What statement do you mean is untrue?
Read the title of the article and the title of this post...
Title of this post: Upward of 20,000 Ukrainian amputees face trauma on a scale unseen since WWI
The title of your article: The Murder of People with Disabilities - The Nazis saw people with disabilities as an obstacle in their attempts to create an idealized "German race." In 1939, the Nazi regime began a systematic program to murder them.
What is the statement?
Is your problem with the fact that they say "since WWI"? Your "wink wink, nudge nudge, get what I mean" explanation makes no sense lol. Just say what you mean, nobody knows what the heck you're talking about.
Ok ok hear me out. I spent way too much time trying to figure out wtf that guy was talking about. I'm like 80% sure he/she was taking issue with the word "trauma" in the title. And then trying to say that disabled people had worse trauma in nazi Germany
Sheesh, I need to brush up on my English
Your english skills have nothing to do with this, the dude was being extremely vague on purpose.
I get it... Comments below seem to play stupid in bad-faith (or just completly ignorant). It is ridicoulous to compare the "scale of trauma since ww1" with the current (relatively small) war in Ukraine. During ww2 people with disabilities were purged - how is that trauma less then what this title is alluding to?
Ok, I guess the title is easy to misunderstand but I still don't think it's the blatantly untrue statement you think it is. Maybe they intentionally wrote the title in a way that is easy to misunderstand to make you read the article and that would be misleading, but if you read it, you will understand that they are talking about something very specific when they say trauma on an unseen scale since ww1 and not claiming it's the worst thing ever since ww1.
It is blatently untrue and exagerated propaganda. Of course all human suffering is bad - however, it is also not a competition of who has more trauma. This is a shit article with a shit title and it should be flagged as misinformation/propaganda.
It seems that you think something can't be bad if there's something else that's worse.
You bringing up things that doesn't even share a similar context is either plain stupid or very deliberate.
I'm voting for the latter.
By the way... You do agree that the Russian aggression against Ukraine is caused by Russia attacking Ukraine and that Russia have a deliberate strategy of killing civilians in Ukraine, right?