this post was submitted on 15 Dec 2024
30 points (100.0% liked)

Ask Lemmygrad

829 readers
9 users here now

A place to ask questions of Lemmygrad's best and brightest

founded 2 years ago
MODERATORS
Shaggy0291@lemmygrad.ml
GrainEater@lemmygrad.ml
SovereignState@lemmygrad.ml
QueerCommie@lemmygrad.ml
yogthos@lemmygrad.ml
30
Can someone please explain this to me? (lemmygrad.ml)
submitted 1 week ago by VictimOfAmerikkka@lemmygrad.ml to c/asklemmygrad@lemmygrad.ml
29 comments fedilink hide all child comments
 

Someone was saying that even if using machines becomes cheaper than using humans, capitalist will still use humans because

"automation constitutes constant capital and human labour is variable capital

The Tendency for the Rate of Profit to Fall disproves that fact"

What do those mean?

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] zedcell@lemmygrad.ml 1 points 5 days ago

One thing to note is that machinery does not impart value onto the things they produce because they can produce so many things for a relatively low fixed cost. Marx equates the infinitesimal value imparted by machinery to that of the forces of nature. This is an important part of why the exchange value of goods produced by machinery drops dramatically.