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I get its basic shit that’s over my head. I’m just trying to understands
If the only reason is because 1/3 of 1 = 0.9, than id say the problem is with the question not the answer? Seems like 1 cannot be divided without some magical remainder amount existing
If I have 100 dogs, and I split them into thirds I’ve got 3 lots of 33 dogs and 1 dog left over. So the issue is with my original idea of splitting the dogs into thirds, because clearly I haven’t got 100% in 3 lots because 1 of them is by itself.
Likewise would 0.888… be .9? If we assume that magical remainder number ticks you up the next number wouldn’t that also hold true here as well?
And if 0.8 is the same as 0.888888888…, than why wouldn’t we say 0.7 equals 0.9, etc?
It's over the head of everyone. That's why I shared it here.
No, but 0.899... = 0.9. This only applies to the repeating sequences of the last digit of your base. We're using base 10 so it got to be 9.
Then you split the leftover dog into 10 parts. Why 10? Because you use base 10. Three of those parts go to each lot of dogs... and you still have 1/10 dog left.
Then you do it again. And you have 1/100 dog left. And again, and again, infinitely.
If you take that "infinitely" into account, then you can say that each lot of dogs has exactly one third of the original amount.