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Of course, yes. But for most people on here ~75 yrs = forever. It was well before most of us were born. But you’re right, it started mostly in 1948.
Not to be pedantic here, but it did start in 1948 ... because before that there had been no Jewish state for almost 2000 years, after Rome destroyed the Second Temple in 70 AD and the Diaspora began.
It started before 1948 even, because although Israel was officially not a state until then, there was turmoil because of people moving there and wanting to start their state on occupied land. If you look at the history there was unrest around WWI already. It just escalated after 1948 because the west legitimized the existence of Israel.
How could less than 10% of Palestine's population cause unrest on the eve of WW1? Because there were only 80,000 Jews in Palestine then.
If you have sources saying otherwise, please post them.
The Balfour Declaration is a great place to start, here’s the Wikipedia page: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Balfour_Declaration
That was written after WW1 began. The link and population I provided were from pre-WW1.
So no, it's not a good place to start.
"around WWI" does not mean pre-WWI, just around that time. And 1917 is definitely around WWI.
Ok. You're right about that.
But the link to the Balfour is about what Britain did, not Jewish people.
Do you have any links verifying your statement that Jewish people were practicing apartheid during WW1?
Sorry, I should have been more clear; the actual apartheid started with the creation of the state of Israel (of course). The unrest, suppression, stealing of land and property, and discrimination of people started way before.
That was not the discussion, the point of discussion was “before or after 1948”.