this post was submitted on 20 Jun 2024
508 points (99.8% liked)

UK Politics

3091 readers
113 users here now

General Discussion for politics in the UK.
Please don't post to both !uk_politics@feddit.uk and !unitedkingdom@feddit.uk .
Pick the most appropriate, and put it there.

Posts should be related to UK-centric politics, and should be either a link to a reputable news source for news, or a text post on this community.

Opinion pieces are also allowed, provided they are not misleading/misrepresented/drivel, and have proper sources.

If you think "reputable news source" needs some definition, by all means start a meta thread. (These things should be publicly discussed)

Posts should be manually submitted, not by bot. Link titles should not be editorialised.

Disappointing comments will generally be left to fester in ratio, outright horrible comments will be removed.
Message the mods if you feel something really should be removed, or if a user seems to have a pattern of awful comments.

!ukpolitics@lemm.ee appears to have vanished! We can still see cached content from this link, but goodbye I guess! :'(

founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS
 

This should've always been the case.

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] frazw@lemmy.world 29 points 5 months ago (4 children)

The problem with this type of thing is intent.

How do we prove intent to deceive?

Lying is not simply stating incorrect information. It is intending to deceive by knowingly stating incorrect information. It is not easy to prove what someone knew.

What if they were misinformed by a third party that may or may not have an agenda? Under these circumstances the politician is not lying and believes they are telling the truth even though the information they uttered is wrong. Do you go after the third party? Does this then give the politician a mechanism to evade charges using fall guys?

I absolutely believe that people like Bojo should be held to account. In his case there was plenty of evidence. It should also be acceptable for the opposition to state that they were lying in the commons without facing repercussions.

[–] HumanPenguin@feddit.uk 27 points 5 months ago

The same way any crime is proven. Once reasonable suspicion has been declared. Warrents are issued for communications etc.

If it is clear their is evidence the person was informed of the fastness of their statements. Then continued to make the claim. Intent to decide is proven.

Honestly we have just seen this with the post office crap. Where members are in court claiming not to have known of errors in evidence used. While the prosecution prooves they did.

Heck the majority of court case has to consider such things.

It is also why some cases are never taken to court. And some folks get off. But is in no way a reason not to make the laws.

[–] Swedneck@discuss.tchncs.de 12 points 5 months ago

intent is literally a fundamental part of like, all legal systems.

This is why we have voluntary and involuntary manslaughter.

[–] undergroundoverground@lemmy.world 10 points 5 months ago

We have courts for that and intent is very much a factor in nearly all cases. So, its not like its something alien that they couldn't cope with.

To me, if anything, it would add to the weight on a conviction, as the requirements to meet it would be so high.

[–] L0rdMathias@sh.itjust.works 3 points 5 months ago

Skill issue.

If you mess up and lose your job as a politician for lying, then you weren't good enough at weeding out truthfulness to be a politician.