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I admit that I'm not sure how to interpret this in a way that includes freed slaves, people born in the Confederacy during the Civil War, but not everyone else born on US territory, but the implication of having two separate clauses is still that a person may be born in the United States but not subject to the jurisdiction thereof. I think that the Trump administration's arguments seem like a stretch, but so is asserting that the "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" clause means nothing.
If they were not subject to to the jurisdiction of the United States, how would the United States have the authority to deport them?
Your interpretation of "subject to to the jurisdiction of the United States" is the one that would make this clause meaningless in the context of the amendment. A sovereign government has that sort of authority over everyone in the country, so presumably the amendment is talking about something different or otherwise there would have been no point in explicitly including the clause at all.
Foreign sovereigns, foreign ambassadors, foreign armies, and Native Americans were the only categories of people capable of existing both in the United States and outside of its jurisdiction at the time of the 14th ammendment's drafting.
https://reason.com/volokh/2020/10/28/the-original-meaning-of-subject-to-the-jurisdiction-of-the-united-states/
Native Americans living in the united states have been found, in certain senses, at certain times, to not be subject to the jurisdiction thereof.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Federally_recognized_tribe
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_country_jurisdiction#History