this post was submitted on 28 Aug 2025
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chapotraphouse

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[โ€“] infuziSporg@hexbear.net 6 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (1 children)

What does "participation in settler-colonialism" mean when applied to nationalities instead of individuals, if not state projects?

By the time that Polish migration to America got underway, most of the land had already been staked by common law. There isn't much of a "Polish Belt"; Polish-Americans lived largely in cities and either became assimilated as white Americans or lived in enclaves and kept their othered status. And if I recall correctly, Poles in Haiti were friendlier with the Haitian population and largely were okay with the revolution.

To answer the question of what makes Poles different from Italians, Italy is unambiguously more "imperial core" than Poland is, and this has been the case for 150 years (would be 250, but Italy hasn't existed as a unified entity that long). The last time Poland was able to subjugate anyone was the 1730s. In the European context (which is what is relevant to the OP), both nationalities had lots of migration to Northern and Western Europe for a while, but for Italy this ended shortly after unification, while for Poland it continues to this day. In England, Germany, and Benelux, Italians are closer to being seen as part of the cultural continuity, while Poles are seen as waves of immigrant menial laborers.

Whitey has a hierarchy, and Tadeusz is pretty low on it.

[โ€“] newacctidk@hexbear.net 11 points 3 days ago

Poland did subjugate Lithuania, Belarus, Ukraine, and Czechoslovakia, the latter in living memory.

I think you make a good point, but let's not white wash that.