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I mean:

English

Russian

French? (how did this happen? France --> French?!?)

Chinese

And someone from Afghanistan is an Afghan? How did the word get shorter not longer? 🤔

Also, why is a person from India called an Indian, but the language is called Hindi? This breaks my brain...

Philippines --> Filipino? They just saw the "Ph" and decided to use an "F"? 🤔

Okay idk how language even works anymore...

[This is an open discusssion thread on languages and their quirks...]

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[–] JustZ@lemmy.world 1 points 1 hour ago

Here's my favorite as a long time English language speaker, learner, and former editor in chief:

"Buffalo buffalo Buffalo buffalo buffalo buffalo Buffalo buffalo."

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buffalo_buffalo_Buffalo_buffalo_buffalo_buffalo_Buffalo_buffalo

[–] werty@sh.itjust.works 4 points 5 hours ago (1 children)

Why don't Canadians come from Canadia? I think about this too often.

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 3 points 5 hours ago

Because the name of the nation comes from the Iroquoian word "kanata" (for "village") and mythology says that Jacques Cartier mistook that for the name of the land.

[–] jerkface@lemmy.ca 7 points 7 hours ago

People from Halifax are Haligonians. People from Waterloo are Waterluvians. Demonyms are often unique and creative, like collective nouns of animals.

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 8 points 8 hours ago* (last edited 4 hours ago) (2 children)

English is a trash fire. It's a trash fire in pronunciation, in orthography, in grammar, in pretty much ever respect.

But my favourite thing remains 'ough': tough, trough, though, thought, through. All pronounced differently.

[–] Xavienth@lemmygrad.ml 3 points 5 hours ago (1 children)

cough, hiccough (pronounced hiccup), plough

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 2 points 5 hours ago (1 children)

Bough, dough, slough, slough (yes, two different pronunciations!), rough ...

It's a mess, isn't it?

[–] Xavienth@lemmygrad.ml 2 points 5 hours ago

These are not additional pronunciations though.

Bough rhymes with plough, slough rhymes with tough, dough rhymes with though, and slough rhymes with plough or through.

[–] ghostlychonk@lemm.ee 10 points 7 hours ago* (last edited 7 hours ago)

I remember years ago seeing someone online saying English beats up other languages in an alley and goes through their pockets for spare grammar.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 71 points 15 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (2 children)

Shameless plug to !linguistics@mander.xyz . This sort of question is welcome there.

Latin already did a bloody mess of those suffixes:

  • if you were born in Roma, you'd be romanus ("Roman")
  • if you were born in Eboracum (modern York), you'd be eboracensis ("Yorkese")
  • if you were born in Gallia (roughly modern Belgium and France), you'd be gallicus ("Gallic")

In turn those suffixes used to mean different things:

  • that -anus was originally just -nus. Inherited from Proto-Indo-European *-nós; you'd plop it after verbs to form adjectives.
  • that -icus was originally just -cus; from PIE *-kos, but you'd plop it into nouns instead.
  • nobody really knows where -ensis is from but some claim that Latin borrowed it from Etruscan.

Then French and Norman inherited this mess, and... left it alone? Then English borrowed all those suffixes. But it wasn't enough of a mess, so it kept its native -ish suffix, that means the exact same thing. That -ish is from PIE *-iskos, and likely related to Latin -cus.

And someone from Afghanistan is an Afghan? How did the word get shorter not longer? 🤔

There's some awareness among English speakers that "[$adjective]istan" means roughly "country where the [$adjective] people live", so the suffix is simply removed: Afghanistan → Afghan, Tajikistan → Tajik, etc.

That -istan backtracks to Classical Persian ـستان / -istān, and it forms adjectives from placenames.

In turn it comes from Proto-Indo-European too. It's from the root *steh₂- "to stand", and also a cognate of "to stand". So etymologically "[$adjective]istan" is roughly "where the [$adjective] people stand". (inb4 I'm simplifying it.)

Also, why is a person from India called an Indian, but the language is called Hindi? This breaks my brain…

Note that India doesn't simply have different "languages"; it has a half dozen different language families. Like, some languages of India are closer to English, Russian, Italian etc. than to other Indian languages.

That said:

  • "India" ultimately backtracks to Greek Ἰνδός / Indós, the river Indus; and Greek borrowed it from Old Persian 𐏃𐎡𐎯𐎢𐏁 / Hindūš. That ending changed because it's what Greek does.
  • "Hindi" comes from Hindi हिंदी / hindī, that comes from Classical Persian هِنْدِی / hindī. That hind- is the same as in the above, referring to the lands around the Indus (India), and the -ī is "related to".

Now, why did Greek erase the /h/? I have no idea. Greek usually don't do this. But Latin already borrowed the word as "India", showing no aspiration.

Philippines --> Filipino? They just saw the “Ph” and decided to use an “F”? 🤔

So, the islands were named after Felipe II of Spain. And there's that convention that royalty names are translated, so "Felipe II" ended as "Philip II" in English. And so the "Islas Filipinas" ended as "Philippine Islands".

...but then the demonym was borrowed straight from Spanish, including its spelling: filipino → Filipino.


Note that this mess is not exclusive to English. As I hinted above, Latin already had something similar; and in Portuguese for example you see the cognates of those English suffixes (-ese/-ês, -an/-ano, -ic/-ego... just no -ish).

Except that for Portuguese simply inheriting the Latin suffixes wasn't enough, you got to reborrow them too. So you end with etymological doublets like -ego (see: Galícia "Galicia" → galego "Galician") and -co (see: Áustria "Austria" → austríaco "Austrian").

Then there's cases where not even speakers agree on which suffix applies, and it's dialect-dependent; e.g. polonês/polaco (Polish), canadense/canadiano (Canadian).

Besides afegão vs. Afeganistão (Afghan vs. Afghanistan), another example of a word where the demonym is shorter than the geographical name is inglês vs. Inglaterra (English vs. England). But it's the same deal: -terra is simply -land, so people clip it off.

There's also the weird case of "brasileiro" (Brazilian), that -eiro is a profession suffix. Originally it referred to people extracting brazilwood, then the country name was backformed from that.

[–] Servais@discuss.tchncs.de 4 points 7 hours ago

Great comment as usual

[–] lazynooblet@lazysoci.al 3 points 8 hours ago

Thank you for such a detailed answer!

[–] sbv@sh.itjust.works 14 points 16 hours ago (5 children)

I've always wondered how we got Japan for a place that calls itself Nippon.

Tbf, I've looked it up a few times and forgotten, so I guess I don't feel that strongly about it.

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 1 points 7 hours ago (1 children)

And why "China" instead of "Zhongguo" or "Zhonghua" or any number of words, none of which sound like "China".

[–] Redex68@lemmy.world 2 points 7 hours ago

I'm pretty sure it came from the Portuguese word for tea (chá).

[–] don@lemm.ee 12 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

For anyone else wondering, according to the wiki: “The name "Japan" is based on Min or Wu Chinese pronunciations of 日本 (pronounced a bit like JOO-pun)* and was introduced to European languages through early trade.”

*parentheses mine.

[–] ocean@lemmy.selfhostcat.com 1 points 14 hours ago (1 children)

Min and Wu are wildly different. Is there pronunciation similar in this case?

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 2 points 7 hours ago (1 children)

I think that's why it was "Min or Wu" there.

[–] ocean@lemmy.selfhostcat.com 1 points 3 hours ago

I can read, that’s why I’m asking this question!

Thanks for the sass

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 6 points 14 hours ago* (last edited 14 hours ago) (2 children)

English likely got the name from Portuguese, "Japão" *[ʒä'pɐ̃ŋ] (see note). I don't think that it's from Dutch "Japan" because otherwise the name would end as "Yapan", as Dutch uses a clear [j] ("y") sound.

In turn Portuguese got it from either Malay or some Chinese language. I think that it's from Cantonese 日本 jat⁶ bun² [jɐt˨ puːn˧˥]. Portuguese has this historical tendency to transform [j] into [ʒ] (the "g" in "genre"), and to mess with any sort of nasal ending.

The name in Chinese languages can be analysed as meaning simply "Sun origin". Because it's to the east of China.

In turn, there are a few ways to refer to Japan in Japanese:

  • 日本 / Nihon - it's a cognate of that Cantonese jat⁶ bun². Except that it uses the Japanese rendering of Wu Chinese words.
  • 日本 / Nippon - same as above, with a slightly more conservative pronunciation (Japanese converted a lot of [p] into [h]).
  • 大和 / Yamato - it's metaphorically referring to the whole (Japan) by one of its part (the Yamato province, modern Nara).
  • 日の本の国 / Hinomoto-no-Kuni - poetic and dated name. 日/hi = Sun, 本/moto = origin, 国/kuni = land, の = an adposition**. So it also means "land of the origin of the Sun". The big difference here is that all words used are inherited from Old Japanese, so there's no Chinese borrowing involved.

*note: that [ŋ] is reconstructed for around 1500 or so (Nanban trade times), given the word was also spelled Japam back then. A more typical contemporary pronunciation would be more like [ʒä'pɜ̃ʊ̯].

**the best way I know to explain Japanese の/no is that it works like a reversed English "of": in English you'd say "origin of Sun", in Japanese you'd say "Sun no origin" (hi no moto = 日の本). I only remember this because of Boku no Hero Academia, because "boku no" = "of I" (my).

[–] sbv@sh.itjust.works 1 points 6 hours ago (1 children)

Thanks for the explanation. So Japan comes from Portuguese via a Chinese language?

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 2 points 2 hours ago

The opposite, it ultimately comes from a Chinese language via Portuguese.

[–] undefined@lemmy.hogru.ch 1 points 13 hours ago* (last edited 13 hours ago)

The way I always remembered の is that it’s much like ’s in English. In other words 日の本 would be“sun’s origin.”

At first I tried to remember it like a reversed Spanish de but that didn’t work because I got it confused with で.

[–] Forester@pawb.social 6 points 16 hours ago* (last edited 15 hours ago)

The Dutch you can blame the Dutch.

I may be conflating, Japan and China. Whoops

[–] IDKWhatUsernametoPutHereLolol@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 16 hours ago (3 children)

I mean... similarly: How did we get "China" from ZhongGuo? 🤔

[–] hddsx@lemmy.ca 4 points 15 hours ago (2 children)

We didn’t. 中國likely became the most common name with 中華民國(present day commonly known as Taiwan). What you now know as China is 中華人民共和國, so 中國 carries on. During dynasty periods that was not the common name.

China comes from sina/sino. I don’t remember where this comes from. Sanskrit?

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 2 points 7 hours ago (1 children)

Uh... 中国(Zhongguo) was first used in the Western Zhou period, over 3000 years ago. Other words like 诸夏(Zhuxia), 诸华 (Zhuhua), 天下 (Tianxia), 华夏 (Huaxia), 神州 (Shenzhou), 九州 (Jiuzhou), and assorted combinations or variations of these were used off and on over the time as well. (None of which sound like "China" naturally.) 大清国 (Daqing Guo) was used the Qing before they were overthrown and the Republic, and later the People's Republic, took the country over again.

[–] hddsx@lemmy.ca 1 points 5 hours ago

It wasn’t common though. Like everyone calls it 中國 now. Not so back then. China has fragmented and reunited many times

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 3 points 13 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (1 children)

China comes from sina/sino. I don’t remember where this comes from. Sanskrit?

Odds are that both were independently borrowed from Sanskrit चीन / Cīna:

  • China: Sanskrit, then Persian, Portuguese, English. By then Portuguese likely still had the [tʃ] "tch" sound.
  • Sina: Sanskrit, then Persian, Arabic, Greek, Latin, English. Arabic converted Sanskrit [tɕ] into [sˤ], then Greek into [s].

Note: dunno in English but at least in Latin "Sina" (often Sinae, the plural) refers specifically to southern China. The north is typically called Serica (roughly "of the silk").

[–] Limitless_screaming@kbin.earth 3 points 13 hours ago (1 children)

In Arabic it's "Seen" (صين) with a Saad (ص) ‎[sˤ]. It came from Persian "چین" (Cheen). Which came from Sanskrit.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 3 points 13 hours ago

My bad, and thanks for the info! I'll correct my comment, I kind of rushed checking the etymologies.

[–] themoken@startrek.website 2 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

Wikipedia says from Portuguese, through Persian, back to Sanskrit, being the grand daddy of English, calling it "cina", and/or it has to do with Qin Dynasty that unified China.

Probably better than whatever bullshit they would have gotten from Zhongguo if "Peking" was as good as they could do with "Beijing"

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 3 points 14 hours ago

back to Sanskrit, being the grand daddy of English

Sanskrit is more like English's uncle than granddaddy: English is from Proto-Germanic, and both Proto-Germanic and Sanskrit are from Proto-Indo-European.

[–] SGforce@lemmy.ca 2 points 15 hours ago

Or that soy beans are actually named after the sauce, since English didn't have a word for the bean yet.

[–] Hjalamanger@feddit.nu 4 points 13 hours ago

If I'm free to discuss what ever language quirk I'd want to, then let's talk about German nouns. How did they end up with three genders (die, das and der) for their nouns? English has none, French has two just like Swedish mostly has two but the Germans ended up with five.

For any English speakers unfamiliar with the concept of noun gender it's basically a way of grouping nouns. It commonly effects how they word works with other grammar. For example the German genders determine whether die, das or der should be used when English has the and it does, in a more convoluted way involving other grammar to, determine whether ein, eine, einen or einem should be used where English has a/an

[–] Puschel_das_Eichhorn@lemm.ee -2 points 11 hours ago (2 children)

Em... Are you stoned?

  • Afghanistan means "land of the Afghans".
  • Hindi is just one out of hundreds of languages spoken in India. The words have the same origin. I am not sure what prompted the loss or gain of an "h", but English has nothing to do with it.
  • The Philippines/Filipino thing clearly works the other way around. I cannot think of any language besides English in which an "f" can be written as "ph".
[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 1 points 2 hours ago

I cannot think of any language besides English in which an “f” can be written as “ph”.

Latin. In fact it's where this mess started out.

Ancient Greek had a three-way distinction between the following sets of consonants:

  • ⟨Φ Θ Χ⟩ /pʰ tʰ kʰ/ - they sound like English pill, till, kill; there's a clear asphhhhiration in them
  • ⟨Π Τ Κ⟩ /p t k/ - they sound like English spill, still, skill; no aspiration
  • ⟨Β Δ Γ⟩ /b d g/ - more like English bill, dill, give; instead of aspiration you vibrate the vocal folds before the consonant even starts

Latin borrowed a lot of Greek words. The words with the second and third set of consonants were no problem; they were mostly spelled in Latin with ⟨P T C⟩ and ⟨B D G⟩. But Latin didn't have the sounds of the first set, and for Latin speaking ears they sounded like they had /h/. So they were spelled with ⟨PH TH CH⟩, to represent that /h/ sound.

So back then the digraphs still made sense... except that Greek changed over time. And what used to be pronounced /pʰ tʰ kʰ/ ended as /f θ x/ (like English fill, think, and Scottish loch). And Latin speakers started pronouncing those words with the "new" Greek sounds instead of the old ones. But they were still spelling them the same.

From that that ⟨PH⟩ spread out across a lot of orthographies using the Latin alphabet.

[–] ZDL@ttrpg.network 3 points 7 hours ago (2 children)

I cannot think of any language besides English in which an “f” can be written as “ph”.

French. Vietnamese (via the French influence) when transliterated. Italian (where in Greek-origin words you can see either being used). German (same as Italian, though over the years some words got formally modified from ph- to f-, but words like Philosophie is still spelled that way). Spanish and Portuguese too, though far more rarely than in Italian (where it is in turn far more rare than in French). Polish and Hungarian too, IIRC.

[–] lvxferre@mander.xyz 1 points 2 hours ago

Italian and Spanish subbed ⟨PH⟩ with ⟨F⟩ ages ago; examples here and here. Portuguese stopped using it in 1911 (ACL / "European" standard) asd 1943 (ABL / "Brazilian") standard.

In Portuguese it was part of a wider wave of orthographic reforms, that also got rid of etymological double consonants and ⟨Y⟩. A lot of people were hilariously annoyed, example stolen from Wikipedia:

Imaginem esta palavra phase, escripta assim: fase. Não nos parece uma palavra, parece-nos um esqueleto (...) Affligimo-nos extraordinariamente, quando pensamos que haveriamos de ser obrigados a escrever assim!

Imagine this word phase, written like this: fase. It doesn't resemble us a word, it resemble us a skeleton. (...) We get profoundly afflicted, when we think that we would be required to write it like this!

[–] Puschel_das_Eichhorn@lemm.ee 1 points 4 hours ago

I wasn't referring to loanwords, so I'd say you could limit your list to just Greek.